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Old 02-14-2008, 11:14 AM
forexsweety forexsweety is offline
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Question Forex pips - What is it anyway???

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Forex pip is the smallest price increment in forex currency trading - pip stands for percentage in point.
Prices are quoted to the fourth decimal point in the forex market - for example EUR/USD might be bid at 1.1914 and offered at 1.1917. In this example we can see that the spread is 3 pips wide. The Japanese Yen (JPY) is an exception - it is quoted only to the second decimal point

For EUR/USD, calculate 100000 EUR (1 Unit) x .0001 = $10 per pip For GBP/USD, calculate 100000 GBP (1 Unit) x .0001 = $10 per pip


Use the pip value calculator to calculate the value of each pip

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A tutorial about how to calculate leverage, margin, and pip values in forex trades.

When you buy something in a store in the United States, the smallest unit of price is 1 cent. This is because the coin with the least value is the penny, and so it would not be possible to sell or buy something for less than that, if only a single item is purchased, as is usually the case. forex pip

(one pip, with proper decimal placement/currency exchange rate) x (Notional Amount)
Using USDJPY as an example, this yields:
(.01/130.46) x USD10,000 = $0.77
or 77 cents per pip
Using EURUSD as an example, we have:
(.0001/.8942) x EUR10,000 = EUR 1.1183
But we want the pip value in USD, so we then must multiply EUR1.1183 x (EURUSD exchange rate):
EUR 1.1183 x .8942 = $1.00
This is in fact a phenomenon you will see with any currency in which the currency is quoted first (such as EURUSD, GBPUSP, or AUDUSD): the pip value is always $1.00 per 10,000 currency units. This is why pip (or "tick") values in currency futures, where the currency is quoted first, are always fixed.
Approximate pip values for the major currencies are as follows, per 10,000 units of the base currency:
USD/JPY: 1 pip = $.77; In other words a change from 130.45 to 130.46 is worth about $.77 per $10,000.
EUR/USD: 1 pip = $1.00; .8941 to .8942 is worth $1.00 per 10,000 Euros.
GBP/USD: 1 pip = $1.00; 1.4765 to 1.4766 is worth $1.00 per 10,000 Pounds.
USD/CHF: 1 pip = $.59; 1.6855 to 1.6866 is worth $.59 per $10,000.

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Old 03-30-2008, 01:54 AM
ForexWindo ForexWindo is offline
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Join Date: Mar 2008
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Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by forexsweety View Post
This is in fact a phenomenon you will see with any currency in which the currency is quoted first (such as EURUSD, GBPUSP, or AUDUSD): the pip value is always $1.00 per 10,000 currency units.
I'm confused by that statement.

"... with any currency in which the currency is quoted first ..."

But in the examples given, EURUSD, GBPUSD, or AUDUSD, the USD is quoted second, isn't it?

Quote:
Originally Posted by forexsweety View Post
Using EURUSD as an example, we have:
(.0001/.8942) x EUR10,000 = EUR 1.1183
But we want the pip value in USD, so we then must multiply EUR1.1183 x (EURUSD exchange rate):
EUR 1.1183 x .8942 = $1.00
I am trying to work this calculation out with all the units involved and I am not having any luck, maybe someone can enlighten me.

EURUSD = 0.8942. So the conversion factor is: EUR 1 / USD 0.8942.

The equation in the quote becomes: (.0001) * ( EUR 1 / USD 0.8942 ) x EUR 10,000 = EUR 1.1183

Something is wrong here though, because this implies EUR^2 / USD which is clearly not the case. What am I missing?

When I perform a similar calculation using an indirect rate, there are no issues:

suppose JPYUSD = 120.50

one pip = (.01) * (100,000 JPY) * (1 USD / 120.50 JPY) = 8.298 USD...


I think if someone could explain the logic in dividing the pip by the exchange rate I might understand. I know that 0.0001 / 0.8942 gives me the worth of a pip in EUR but I am not clear why....

Thanks,

David

Last edited by ForexWindo : 03-30-2008 at 03:41 AM.
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Old 04-06-2008, 10:55 AM
Forex-Money-Signal Forex-Money-Signal is offline
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Default Forex Signal System

Great Forex Signal System available. Daily charts only, 86% accuracy sms/email alerts, superb returns up to 1124 pips a month! All pairs tradable. FREE TRIAL! Please go to www.forexmoneysignal.com
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